Someone inquired recently about how to show from Scripture that God no longer gives new revelation today - contra charismatic views of on-going revelation via tongues / prophecy. He cited the following from Westminster Confession of Faith, and asked whether 1 Cor 13:8-13 is the best passage to appeal to:
1.1. Although the light of nature, and the works of creation and providence do so far manifest the goodness, wisdom, and power of God, as to leave men inexcusable; yet they are not sufficient to give that knowledge of God, and of his will, which is necessary unto salvation. Therefore it pleased the Lord, at sundry times, and in divers manner, to reveal Himself, and to declare that His will unto His Church; and afterwards, for the better preserving and propagating of the truth, and for the more sure establishment and comfort of the Church against the corruption of the flesh, and the malice of Satan and of the world, to commit the same wholly unto writing: which maketh the Holy Scripture to be most necessary; those former ways of God's revealing His will unto His people being now ceased.
Here's my brief initial response:
'The two passages I go to first to show that God's special revelation is now completed are Heb 1:1-2 and Eph 2:20. First, we need to understand the WHY of revelation. God has spoken in history in order to save us. Revelation serves God's plan of redemption. It's not simply divinely revealed information. It has a saving purpose. One theologian put it this way, in reference to Heb 1:1-2: "As God's saving acts are complete [in Christ], so also is the verbal revelation that explains them" (P. Adams, New Dictionary of Biblical Theology). Eph 2:20 shows that the church is built on the FOUNDATION of the apostles and prophets, i.e., that foundation was laid once for all in the apostolic era. The apostles and prophets are agents of God's Christ-centered revelation, which is now complete.
'The 1 Cor 13 passage has good reformed pedigree, in defending the position that God's Word-revelation is now complete. Jonathan Edwards gave exposition of it to argue that the "perfect" refers to the completion of biblical revelation which was completed at the close of the apostolic era. Others more recently have argued against this view by understanding the "perfect" to refer to when Christ returns. Personally, I think Edwards argument still has merit and should not be lightly dismissed.'
A modern defender of this traditional interpretation of 1 Cor 13:8-13 is Victor Budgen in his biblical & historical assessment Charismatics and the Word of God (Evangelical Press). Here is a summary outline of his defense that "the perfect" means the completed revelation of the NT (75-86):
1) When the apostle Paul speaks of prophecy, tongues, and knowledge, he is "speaking of supernatural God-given revelation." Budgen approvingly cites John Wesley's suggestion regarding the gift of knowledge may have been "'...an extraordinary ability to understand and explain the Old Testament types and prophecies" as James did in Acts 15:12-17.
2) In 1 Cor 11:26, Paul declared in Spirit-inspired words that the Lord's Supper would be continued "...until He comes." Why not similar language in 1 Cor 13:10, if he intended to convey that special revelation would continue until Christ's return?
3) Likewise, in 1 Cor 15:24, Paul unambiguously describes the language of Christ's return as "the end."
4) By God's superintendence, Paul used the Gr. word to telion in verse 10 for "perfection," which means "a completed thing." Used 18x in the NT, it never refers to heaven or the return of Christ / consummation. It is often translated as "mature" (i.e. 1 Cor 2:6). It also conveys the sense of coming to maturity or completion.
5) "Therefore it is the full development and maturing of prophecy, other languages and knowledge that is in view. These gifts are the three gifts whereby God communicates supernatural, authoritative, infallible truth. At the time when 1 Corinthians was written he did this in a partial but not imperfect way through the gifts. What is the final completed form of God speaking supernaturally, authoritatively and infallibly? Is it not beyond all doubt the NT Scriptures? These are the prophecy to end all prophecies and are frequently termed as such (Rom 16:26; 2 Peter 1:19; Rev 22:18)" (76). The NT is now the key to understanding God's prior revelation in the OT, and how it is fulfilled in Christ and His Church.
(to be continued...)
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